Aircraft Knowledge Quiz: Test Your Understanding

Posted on Sep 14, 2024 in Design and Engineering

Aircraft Knowledge Quiz

Test Your Understanding

Weight and Balance

1. The maximum permissible take-off and landing weight is:
  1. 3,900 lb (1773 kgs)
  2. 3,800 lb (1727 kgs)
  3. 3,600 lb (1636 kgs)
2. The flight manual definition of the center of gravity datum is:
  1. 78.4 inches forward of the wing leading edge
  2. The front face of the firewall
  3. 89.4 inches forward of the main landing gear axle centerline
3. At maximum weight, the center of gravity aft limit is:
  1. 42.5 inches
  2. 49.0 inches
  3. 53.0 inches
4. At maximum weight, the center of gravity forward limit is:
  1. 42.5 inches
  2. 45.0 inches
  3. 47.5 inches

Performance

5. The never exceed speed (Vne) is:
  1. 187 KCAS (190 KIAS)
  2. 190 KCAS (194 KIAS)
  3. 195 KCAS (174 KIAS)
6. The normal operating limit speed (VNO) is:
  1. 165 KCAS (168 KIAS)
  2. 168 KCAS (171 KIAS)
  3. 171 KCAS (174 KIAS)
7. The Design Maneuvering speed (Va) at AUW is:
  1. 108 KCAS (110 KIAS)
  2. 112 KCAS (114 KIAS)
  3. 117 KCAS (119 KIAS)
8. The maximum speed for wing flap extension (VFe) to 30° is:
  1. 98 KCAS (99 KIAS)
  2. 105 KCAS (105 KIAS)
  3. 109 KCAS (110 KIAS)
9. The airspeed limitation for landing gear extension (VLO) is:
  1. 130 KCAS (132 KIAS)
  2. 135 KCAS (137 KIAS)
  3. 138 KCAS (140 KIAS)
10. The maximum permissible weight of baggage on or aft of the wheel well is:
  1. 120 lb (55 kgs)
  2. 100 lb (45 kgs)
  3. 80 lb (36 kgs)

Engine Operation

11. The maximum permissible engine speed is:
  1. 2550 RPM
  2. 2850 RPM
  3. 2700 RPM
12. The maximum permissible engine oil temperature is:
  1. 234°F
  2. 240°F
  3. 255°F
13. The maximum permissible engine oil pressure is:
  1. 90 psi
  2. 100 psi
  3. 75 psi
14. The maximum fuel pressure is:
  1. 18.5 psi (177 lb/hr)
  2. 22.0 psi (200 lb/hr)
  3. 19.5 psi (151 lb/hr)
15. The normal operating manifold pressure range is:
  1. 15 to 25 inches of mercury (Hg)
  2. 18 to 34 inches of mercury (Hg)
  3. 15 to 27.5 inches of mercury (Hg)
16. The throttle control is held at the desired position:
  1. By a friction lock in the control pedestal
  2. By a ratchet lock control
  3. By a separate lever on the right side of the control quadrant
17. Opening of the alternate air door in cruise will result in:
  1. An increase of about 5 inches manifold pressure
  2. A decrease of about 10 inches manifold pressure
  3. A decrease of about 10% manifold pressure
18. Fuel priming the engine for starting is carried out by:
  1. A manual priming pump
  2. Moving the mixture control to full RICH and the throttle OPEN with auxiliary fuel pump ON
  3. Opening the throttle to give 50-60 lb/hr with auxiliary fuel pump ON
19. To clear fuel vapor after starting, run the engine at:
  1. 800 – 1000 RPM
  2. 1000 – 1200 RPM
  3. 1200 – 1400 RPM
20. The single ignition check should be carried out at:
  1. 1700 RPM with propeller set at high RPM
  2. 1500 RPM with propeller set at high RPM
  3. 1800 RPM with propeller set at high RPM
21. During the single ignition check, the maximum permissible drop when operating on either magneto is:
  1. 100 rpm
  2. 175 rpm
  3. 150 rpm
22. Full throttle checks on the ground are recommended:
  1. Prior to the first flight of the day
  2. Only if power output is suspect
  3. Only if the ambient temperature is below 15°C
23. The electric fuel pump should normally be ON:
  1. For engine starting only
  2. For landing only
  3. For all take-offs and landings
24. Use of the auxiliary fuel pump HI position is restricted to use:
  1. During take-off and starting only
  2. After failure of engine-driven fuel pump
  3. Prior to engine start
25. Correct use of the EGT gauge requires adjustment of the mixture control to give:
  1. Peak exhaust gas temperature
  2. A temperature 10% below peak
  3. A temperature 25° to 75° below peak
26. The total fuel capacity is:
  1. 102 US Gallons
  2. 95 US Gallons
  3. 90 US Gallons
27. The selector will enable fuel to be selected to the engine:
  1. From either left or right fuel cells, but not from both fuel cells at the same time
  2. From either left or right fuel cells or from both fuel cells at the same time
  3. And also to transfer fuel from the left cell to the right cell and vice versa
28. The fuel bay vents are located:
  1. Integral with each filler cap and left wing adjacent to strut
  2. On the undersurface of the fuselage
  3. At the wingtip trailing edge and each filler cap
29. Fuel water drain checks can be carried out:
  1. Only at the fuel strainer drain position and at each underwing quick drain valve
  2. Only at each underwing quick drain valve
  3. At the fuel strainer drain position, two underwing quick drain valves
30. A fuel system drain lever is located:
  1. On the right-hand side of the cabin on the forward face of the wing spar housing
  2. Under the left-hand side of the engine cowling
  3. Below the fuel selector valve control in the control pedestal
31. Excess fuel and fuel vapor from the engine-driven fuel pump is returned:
  1. Direct to the right fuel cell
  2. Direct to the left fuel cell
  3. To the fuel reservoir of the tank selected
32. Fuel quantity is indicated by:
  1. Two mechanically operated gauges marked in US gallons
  2. Two electrical gauges marked in US gallons and lbs
  3. One dual pointer gauge showing contents of each tank in lbs and US gallons
33. The engine oil level is checked:
  1. By a dipstick integral with the filler cap
  2. By a dipstick remote from a filler cap
  3. By a filler neck sight gauge
34. The engine should not be operated with an oil level of fewer than:
  1. 7 quarts (US)
  2. 2 quarts (US)
  3. 5 quarts (US)
35. The recommended oil grade is:
  1. SAE 30 above 4°C (40°F)
  2. SAE 10W40 above 15°C (65°F)
  3. SAE 50 above 4°C (40°F)

Flight Controls

36. In flight, trimming is provided:
  1. Only for longitudinal control
  2. For longitudinal and directional control
  3. For longitudinal, lateral and directional control
37. The control lock will:
  1. Lock all the flying controls
  2. Lock only the aileron and elevator controls
  3. Restrict throttle movement
38. Trim adjustment for a right or left wing heavy condition:
  1. Is by handwheel operation of a tab on the right aileron
  2. Is by handwheel operation of a tab on the left aileron
  3. Is not possible during flight
39. The wing flaps are operated:
  1. Electrically
  2. Hydraulically
  3. Manually
40. The wing flap settings are 0 degrees and:
  1. 10, 20 & 30 degrees
  2. 15, 30 & 45 degrees
  3. Any position down to 30°
41. The flaps are stopped in the required position:
  1. By a follow-up system returning the selector to off
  2. By a microswitch canceled by a follow-up system
  3. By releasing the selector allowing it to spring to the center-off position

Landing Gear System

42. The position of the landing gear is indicated by:
  1. Three green and one red light used for down and locked, gear unsafe respectively
  2. Three green down and locked lights and one amber gear unsafe light
  3. One green down and locked light and one amber gear up light
43. The landing gear warning horn emits an intermittent sound:
  1. If the landing gear is not selected down and the manifold pressure is below 7 inches
  2. If the flaps are selected to the landing position and the landing gear is retracted
  3. If the landing gear is not down and locked and the throttle is retarded below about 12 inches manifold pressure
44. To test the landing gear warning horn:
  1. Press the TEST switch to obtain an intermittent sound
  2. Press the GREEN warning light to obtain an intermittent sound
  3. Press the AMBER warning light to obtain a steady sound
45. Retraction and extension of the landing gear is carried out by:
  1. An engine-driven hydraulic pump
  2. An electric motor driving a hydraulic pump
  3. A reversible electric motor and gearbox
46. A landing gear safety switch, to prevent retraction with aircraft weight on the wheel, is:
  1. Activated by the nose gear strut
  2. Activated by the port main leg
  3. Activated by the starboard main leg
47. Main landing gear main door operation:
  1. Is by mechanical connection to the landing gear
  2. Is initiated when the landing gear selector is pulled out from the detent and repositioned
  3. Is blocked on the ground by the nose gear microswitch
48. If, during landing, the gear position indicator does not light when a selection is made:
  1. The landing gear doors will not open
  2. The landing gear will be locked, but the landing gear doors remain open
  3. The landing gear doors remain open and hydraulic pressure is retained to the main gear actuators
49. The hydraulic emergency hand pump:
  1. Can be used to raise the landing gear
  2. Draws from a hydraulic reservoir which is independent of the normal system
  3. Cannot be used to raise the landing gear
50. When operating the emergency hand pump:
  1. The position of the normal landing gear selector is immaterial to gear sequence
  2. Place the gear handle in the down position
  3. The main gear doors will close when gear is locked down
51. For pre-flight inspection purposes, the main landing gear bay doors may be opened:
  1. By leaving the selector DOWN, turning the master switch OFF and pumping the hand pump
  2. By selecting DOWN, turning the master switch OFF and running the engine
  3. By turning the master switch OFF, selecting UP and pumping the hand pump

Instruments and Electrical Systems

52. The pilot head is positioned:
  1. On the bottom surface of the left wing
  2. On the left side of the cabin nose
  3. On the left rear side of the cabin
53. The static pressure source is located at:
  1. Left and right sides of the rear fuselage
  2. Left side of the cabin
  3. Integral part of the pilot head
54. The gyro suction gauge is located on:
  1. The instrument panel above the attitude gyro
  2. The engine instrument panel
  3. The right side of the center instrumental panel
55. Electrical power is supplied by a:
  1. 60 ampere alternator
  2. 50 ampere alternator
  3. 75 ampere generator
56. Access to the aircraft battery is provided:
  1. By lifting the right front seat
  2. By removing a panel in the floor of the forward baggage compartment
  3. Under the left-hand side of the top cowling
57. Electrical power to the Electronic Bus Bar is ON:
  1. Supplied from the battery at all times the master is ON
  2. Isolated during starting and use of external power
  3. Isolated automatically if the alternator is not online
58. In flight, the ammeter indicates:
  1. The battery charge or discharge
  2. The load on the alternator only
  3. The battery charging current irrespective of the electrical equipment in use
59. If the master switch is at OFF:
  1. No electrical services will operate
  2. Only the fuel pump will operate
  3. The stall warning will operate
60. A positive assessment of the alternator and voltage regulator operation can be determined during engine ground run by:
  1. Turning OFF the battery master switch and checking the ammeter reading
  2. Noting a minimum deflection of the ammeter when turning on a heavy electrical load
  3. Noting a high ammeter reading a couple of minutes after start-up