Comprehensive Guide to Bones, Joints, and Muscles

Posted on Mar 27, 2025 in Human Biology

  1. Osteoblasts become surrounded by the extracellular matrix (ECM) and become trapped within a lacuna.
  2. Thin, broad bones are classified as flat bones.
  3. All of the following components are associated with the organic matrix except hydroxyapatite.
  4. Perforating canals run perpendicular to the osteons.
  5. In bones that have ceased to grow in length, the only cartilage that remains is the articular cartilage on the epiphyses of bones.
  6. Severe anemia may trigger an adaptive conversion of yellow marrow to red marrow.
  7. Spongy bone differs from compact bone because spongy bone is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of stress.
  8. Which sequence is correct for the development of mature bone cells? osteogenic cells → osteoblasts → osteocytes
  9. If the inorganic matrix is destroyed, bone would become flexible and unable to resist compression.
  10. The innermost surface of bone has a lining known as the endosteum.
  11. Bone cells that are surrounded by bone matrix and are located within lacunae are osteocytes.
  12. Ossification is the process of bone formation.
  13. Bones perform all the following functions except generate impulses.
  14. All the following events occur during intramembranous ossification except enlargement of the medullary cavity.
  15. Bones located within a tendon are classified as sesamoid bones.
  16. Spongy bone is made up of a branching framework called trabeculae.
  17. Which cells participate in the process of bone deposition? Osteoblasts
  18. The main central shaft of a long bone is called the diaphysis.
  19. Damage to the epiphyseal plate in a long bone of a young person might cause the bone not to lengthen properly.
  20. The main minerals bone stores are calcium and phosphorus.
  21. Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the diaphysis.
  22. Which canals connect lacunae together? Canaliculi
  23. The structural units of mature compact bone are called osteons.
  24. Osteoblasts produce new bone tissue by secreting matrix.
  25. The secondary ossification center in a long bone is located at the epiphysis.
  26. Canaliculi allow for the passage of oxygen, nutrients, and small substances to and from osteocytes trapped within lacunae.
  27. Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? Osteoclasts
  28. Endochondral ossification forms bone from within a model of hyaline cartilage.
  29. The canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of blood vessels and nerve fibers.
  30. What structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length? Epiphyseal plate
  31. The stacked chondrocytes undergo rapid cell division within the zone of proliferation.
  32. A greenstick fracture occurs primarily in children.


  1. When considering the classification of bones, which bones are used primarily for movement rather than protection? Long bones
  2. Ossification is the process of bone formation.
  3. Which type of cell forms the medullary cavity in a fetal bone and removes excess bone at a fracture site? Osteoclasts
  4. The epiphysis is the enlarged, rounded end of a long bone.
  5. Diploe is the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones.
  6. Perforating canals run perpendicular to the osteons.
  7. Bones with a diaphysis and epiphyses are classified as long bones.
  8. Bone growth in length occurs at the epiphyseal plate in long bones.
  9. Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the diaphysis.
  10. Within the epiphyseal plate, which zone houses actively dividing cartilage cells in their lacunae? Zone of proliferation
  11. Which of the following promotes bone resorption? Pressure
  12. Which hormone, produced by the thyroid gland, works opposite to parathyroid hormone (PTH)? Calcitonin
  13. Charlie has a break in the shaft of his thigh bone. He broke the diaphysis.
  14. For a person who starts running for exercise, bone deposition exceeds bone resorption.
  15. The predominant ingredient of the inorganic matrix is calcium salts, with the majority existing as large molecules of hydroxyapatite crystals. True
  16. What type of bone growth do you think a 40-year-old male experiences? Appositional growth
  17. What tissue serves as the model for bones formed during endochondral ossification? Hyaline cartilage
  18. Which of the following persists for life? Articular cartilage
  19. Appositional growth produces growth in width.
  20. As a result of the increase of testosterone at puberty for males, appositional bone growth increases.
  21. What hormone promotes an increase in the activity of osteoclasts? Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  22. If a break occurs in the shaft of a thigh bone, what part of the bone has been broken? Diaphysis
  23. All of the following factors will affect osteoblast and osteoclast activity except: yellow bone marrow.
  24. A comminuted fracture results when the bone is shattered into multiple fragments.
  25. Increasing mechanical stress will cause bone to become stronger by increasing deposition of mineral salts.
  26. As a result of males producing more testosterone at puberty, appositional bone growth increases.
  27. Bone lengthens by longitudinal growth and thickens by appositional growth.
  28. Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is false? It occurs only at the articular surface.
  29. During bone repair, the bony callus may last up to: 3–4 months
  30. The thickness of bones increase as an individual grows into adulthood by appositional growth.


  1. Which of the following sequences correctly lists the order of events that occur during fracture healing? Hematoma forms → soft callus forms → hard callus forms → remodeling occurs
  2. When blood calcium levels rise above normal, osteoclast activity is inhibited by the hormone calcitonin.
  3. Which of the following hormones inhibits bone growth? Parathyroid hormone
  4. Which vitamin is important for the synthesis of collagen? Vitamin C
  5. Out of the numerous factors that influence bone growth and remodeling, the amount of fibrocartilage available does not.
  6. What hormone promotes an increase in the activity of osteoclasts? Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  7. Bone remodeling involves all of the following factors except: intramembranous and endochondral ossification.
  8. A patient shows up in the emergency department with the end of the bone protruding through his skin. What type of fracture does he have? Compound fracture
  9. When the cartilage at the epiphyseal plate stops dividing, the bony structure that forms is known as the epiphyseal line.
  10. All of the following bones are formed by intramembranous ossification except the femur.
  11. Which of the following structures persists for life? Articular cartilage
  12. Bone deposition is performed by osteoblasts, whereas bone resorption is performed by osteoclasts.
  13. Blood cells are made in the red bone marrow of bones, a process known as hematopoiesis.
  14. Bones that are roughly cubed-shaped are classified as: short bones
  15. Bone is considered an important storage reservoir for: calcium, phosphate, and lipids.
  • Longitudinal growth – Proliferation of cells in the epiphyseal plate promotes this type of bone growth.
  • Appositional growth – In this type of bone growth, new circumferential lamellae are formed.
  • Epiphyseal plate – Layer of hyaline cartilage where longitudinal growth occurs in a long bone.
  • Epiphyseal line – The appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth.
  • Endochondral ossification – Testosterone accelerates the closure of epiphyseal plates during this type of ossification.
  1. What contains the marrow cavity? Red and yellow bone marrow
  2. In which do you find sesamoid bones? Tendons and patella (kneecap)
  3. In which do you find irregular bones? Vertebrae and some parts of the skull
  4. In which do you find flat bones? Ribs, pelvis, skull, sternum
  5. In which do you find long bones? Arms and legs
  6. In which bone do you find short bones? Carpals and tarsals
  7. Which membrane surrounds the outer surface? Periosteum


Articulations

  1. Match these prefixes, suffixes and roots to their meanings.
  • The prefix syn- means “together.”
  • The prefix arthr- means “joint.”
  • The prefix chondro- means “cartilage.”
  • The prefix amphi- means “both.”

2. Match these vocabulary terms to their meanings.

  • A(n) costochondral joint is found between the ribs and costal cartilages.
  • A joint that is slightly moveable is classified as a(n) amphiarthrosis joint.
  • A(n) synarthrosis joint is held together tightly and is immoveable.
  • Arthritis is inflammation of the joint.
  • A joint that allows only a small amount of movement is called a(n) amphiarthrosis.
  1. What fiber is commonly associated with fibrous joints? Collagen
  2. Exposed bone surfaces within a joint cavity are lined with: articular cartilage
  3. All the following structures are part of a synovial joint except: a bursa.
  4. Which of the following best represents the functional classifications of joints ranked from least movable to most movable? Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
  5. What part of the joint cavity lubricates the joint, supplies nutrients, removes metabolic wastes, and absorbs shock? Synovial fluid
  6. Joints that have just slight movement are functionally classified as amphiarthroses.
  7. The type of joint found between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae is classified as a: symphysis
  8. A symphysis is a(n) amphiarthrosis.
  9. Which of the following statements best describes a bursa? A bursa is a structure filled with synovial fluid and lined with synovial membrane on its inner surface.
  10. The most common type of inflammation of the joints is osteoarthritis.
  11. Which of the following is a functional joint classification? Diarthrosis
  12. All the following structural classifications apply to joints except: diarthrosis
  13. Which of the following is not a subclass of a fibrous joints: Synchondrosis
  14. Which of the following cartilaginous joints functions primarily in protection and shock absorption of the spinal column? Intervertebral disc
  15. Which of the following statements best describes tendon sheaths? Tendon sheaths protect long tendons as they course over and around synovial joints.


  1. Joints that are diarthroses and have a cavity are classified as synovial joints.
  2. Ligaments that are found within the articular capsule are known as: intracapsular ligaments
  3. A joint cavity consists of an articular cartilage, an articular capsule, and synovial fluid.
  4. Which of the following features is not part of the synovial joint? Tendon sheath
  5. Synovial fluid can be found in all the following structures except: a symphysis
  6. It is important for gomphosis to be a synarthrosis because we want our teeth to have stability in the mandible.
  7. A fracture at the epiphyseal plate can quite possibly have lifelong consequences, such as differences in limb length.
  8. Joints are classified functionally by their amount of motion and structurally by their anatomical characteristics.
  9. A symphysis is a(n) amphiarthrosis.
  10. Joints perform all the following functions except: generate heat.
  11. Two types of cartilaginous joints are: symphysis and synchondrosis.
  12. A syndesmosis is a(n) amphiarthrosis.
  13. It is important for a gomphosis to be a synarthrosis because we want our teeth to have stability in the mandible.
  14. Which statement best describes a bursa? A bursa is a synovial fluid-filled structure lined with synovial membrane on its inner surface.
  15. Which of the following joints is unique to the thumb? Saddle joint
  16. In rotation, the bone turns around itself.
  17. Flexion and extension are types of angular movements.
  18. Which of the following ligaments does not belong to the coxal joint? Fibular collateral ligament
  19. The anterior cruciate ligament anchors the tibia bone to a bone.
  20. While chewing gum you will elevate and depress the mandible.
  21. A condylar joint allows flexion/extension, adduction/abduction, and circumduction, but not rotation. The elbow and knee joints are similar in that their primary motions are flexion and extension.
  22. What type of joint is a ball-and-socket joint? Multiaxial (triaxial) joint
  23. Which statement best describes tendon sheaths: Tendon sheaths protect long tendons as they course over and around synovial joints.
  24. Which key feature distinguishes a synovial joint from other joint types? Presence of a joint cavity
  25. Which type of angular movement moves a body part away from the midline of the body or another reference point: abduction
  26. Shaking your head as if to say “no” is a joint movement known as: rotation.
  27. Which specific feature of the humerus articulates with the scapula? Head
  28. The elbow joint is an example of a hinge joint.
  29. The coxal joint is an articulation formed by: the head of the femur and the acetabulum of the hip bone.
  30. Which movement opposes adduction? Abduction
  31. Which structural joint classification is held together by dense regular collagenous connective tissue? Fibrous
  32. Which of the following cartilaginous joints is found only in young, growing people? Epiphyseal plate


  1. When you walk up the stairs your hip and knee joints extend to lift your body weight.
  2. The gliding motion of the wrist uses plane joints.
  3. Which joint is associated with the rotator cuff, a group of muscles and their tendons? Shoulder
  4. The unhappy triad is an injury involving the medial collateral ligament, the medial meniscus, and the anterior cruciate ligament.
  5. Joints moving in one or more planes but that do not move around an axis are known as nonaxial joints.
  6. All the following structures are associated with the shoulder joint except: the radioulnar ligament.
  7. If you stand on tiptoes to reach something on a top shelf, you are performing plantarflexion at the ankle.
  8. Shaking your head “no” while talking to a small child is the result of a pivot joint between the axis and the atlas.
  9. What movement decreases the angle between the foot and tibia as the toes are pulled up toward the head? Dorsiflexion
  10. The anterior cruciate ligament in the knee joint prevents hyperextension.
  11. Synovial joints allowing movement around two axes are known as biaxial joints.
  12. In which of the following locations would a gliding movement most likely occur? Between the intercarpal joints of the wrist
  13. In the knee joint, the medial meniscus is fibrocartilage.
  14. A freely moveable joint is classified as a: diarthrosis
  15. Functionally, how are cartilaginous joints classified: synarthroses or amphiarthroses
  16. What best describes the structure of a synovial joint? A fluid-filled cavity is found between the articulating bones.
  17. The most moveable fibrous joints are the: syndesmoses
  18. Which of the following is/are classified as fibrous joints: sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
  19. Which statement best describes tendon sheaths: Tendon sheaths protect long tendons as they course over and around synovial joints.
  20. Which key feature distinguishes a synovial joint from other joint types? Presence of a joint cavity
  21. Which type of angular movement moves a body part away from the midline of the body or another reference point: abduction
  22. Synchondroses unite bones with hyaline cartilage while symphyses unite bones with fibrocartilage.
  23. Which of the following components is NOT part of a synovial joint? Epiphyseal plate cartilage
  24. Which type of synovial joint is the simplest and least mobile? Plane joint
  25. Symphysis joints provide no movement and are functionally classified as synarthroses. False
  26. Opposition and reposition occur only at the thumb or the first carpometacarpal joint. True


Skeletal

  • What is the main function of the bones of the appendicular skeleton? Aid in motion
  • What bone marking is a depression in which another structure fits? Fossa
  • Which skull bone contains a protuberance? Occipital
  • The human body has approximately 206 bones.
  • Which bone belongs to the axial skeleton? Parietal
  • What is the depression in the temporal bone that articulates with mandible? Mandibular fossa
  • What is the superior portion of the cranial cavity called? Calvaria
  • The rounded end of a bone that is used for articulation is called a condyle.
  • Which of the following is an opening in a bone? Canal (meatus)
  • What is the small hole on the maxillary bone located below the orbit? Infraorbital foramen
  • Which bone is not associated with the appendicular skeleton? Sternum
  • The weight-bearing structure of a vertebra is the body.
  • The pelvic girdle consists of two bones, the clavicle and scapula, which support the upper limb and anchor it to the trunk. False
  • What structure is present on the second cervical vertebra (C2 or axis) that allows you to rotate your neck to say “no”? Dens (odontoid process)
  • Ribs 8-12 are considered false ribs because they do not directly attach to the sternum by their own cartilage. Instead, the costal cartilage of ribs 8-10 attach to the cartilage of the seventh rib. True
  • Vertebral column (spine) – composed of about 33 bones (vertebrae)
  • 7 cervical – located in neck
  • 12 thoracic – articulate with ribs
  • 5 lumbar – in lower back
  • 5 fused sacral (collectively called sacrum)
  • 3–5 fused coccygeal (collectively called coccyx)
  • Spinal curvatures – C-shaped vertebral column of newborn → S-shaped secondary curvatures as infant grows
  • Primary curvatures (thoracic and sacral) present during fetal development.
  • Secondary curvatures (cervical and lumbar) develop after fetal period.
  • Abnormal spinal curvatures:
  • Scoliosis – abnormal lateral curvatures
  • Lordosis (swayback) – exaggerated cervical and lumbar curvatures
  • Kyphosis (hunchback) – exaggeration of thoracic curvature


  • Bone Disease
  • • Diseases of blood (leukemia, SCA, aplastic anemia) have improperly functioning hematopoietic cells; can therefore benefit from bone marrow transplantation.
  • • Needle is inserted into pelvic bone of matching donor and red marrow is withdrawn; repeated until up to 2 quarts (about 2% of total) is removed.
  • • Recipient’s marrow is destroyed and donor marrow is given IV; cells travel to recipient’s marrow cavities; produce new blood cells in 2-4 weeks if successful.
  • • Complications – flu-like symptoms (first 2-4 weeks), infection or transplant rejection.
  • • Many recipients can return to a healthy life if transplant “takes”.
  • Structure of compact bone:
  • Osteon (Haversian system)
  • – Lamellae = concentric rings of thin layers of bone
  • – Central canal = contains blood vessels & nerves
  • – Lacunae = space for osteocyte
  • – Canaliculi = little canals
  • Osteoporosis and Healthy Bones Perforating canals (Volkmann’s canals) perpendicular to central canals
  • Most common bone disease in U.S; bones become weak and brittle due to inadequate inorganic matrix; increases risk of fractures with decreased rate of healing.
  • Diagnosed by bone density measurement.
  • Causes – dietary (calcium and/or vitamin D deficiency), female gender, advanced age, lack of exercise, hormonal, genetic factors, other diseases.
  • Prevention – balanced diet, supplements, weight-bearing exercise, ERT.
  • Treatment – drugs that inhibit osteoclasts or stimulate osteoblasts.
  • Axial skeleton
  • Skull, vertebral column, thoracic cage (ribs, sternum), ossicles & hyoid
  • Appendicular skeleton
  • Bones of pectoral girdle, upper limb, pelvic girdle, and lower limb
  • Pectoral girdle – clavicle and scapula; anchors upper limb to trunk
  • Pelvic girdle – two pelvic (coxal) bones; anchors lower limb to trunk
  • Facet: shallow convex or concave surface where two bones articulate (rib)
  • Depression: clefts of varying in a bone, located where a bone meets another structure, such as another bone or a blood vessel.
  • Fossa: indentation in a bone into which another structure fits (humerus)
  • Fovea: shallow pit (femur)
  • Condyle: rounded end of a bone that articulates with another bone
  • Head: round projection from a bone epiphysis
  • Canal: narrow slit in a bone or between adjacent parts of bones
  • Groove: long indentation along which a narrow structure travels


Articulations Diseases

Achondroplasia

  • Most common cause of dwarfism; gene defect inherited from a parent or caused by new mutation.
  • Defective gene produces an abnormal growth factor receptor on cartilage; interferes with hyaline cartilage model used in endochondral ossification; articular and epiphyseal cartilage.
  • Bones form and grow abnormally; results in short limbs, a disproportionately long trunk and facial abnormalities.
  • Long-term problems include joint disorders, respiratory difficulties, and SC compression; may be managed with medications.

Gigantism and Acromegaly

  • Excess GH can produce two conditions, depending on when in life it develops; both generally caused by a tumor that secretes hormone; treated by tumor removal.
  • Childhood – condition is gigantism; epiphyseal growth plates have yet to close; individuals get very tall due to excessive longitudinal and appositional bone growth.
  • Adulthood – condition is acromegaly; epiphyseal growth plates have closed; no increase in height, but enlargement of bone, cartilage, and soft tissue
    • Skull, bones of face, hands, feet, and tongue affected
    • Can cause heart and kidney malfunction; associated with development of diabetes
    • Fractures:

Simple fractures vs Compound fractures

Spiral Fracture: Twisting force causes a bone to break in a spiral pattern along its length.

Compression Fracture: Bone collapses or is crushed, often seen in vertebrae.

Comminuted Fracture: Bone breaks into three or more fragments.

Avulsion Fracture: Fragment of bone pulled away by tendon/ligament force.

Greenstick Fracture: Bone bends and partially breaks, common in children.

Epiphyseal Plate Fracture: Injury at the growth plate in children/adolescents, impacting bone growth.

•Bursitis refers to inflammation of a bursa; due   to trauma, repetitive movements like   pitching a baseball, or an inflammatory   disease (RA)
•Most common sites of bursitis are shoulder,   elbow, hip, and knee
•Clinical features of bursitis include pain, the joint may feel tender, swollen, and warm


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  • -Which of the following is a long bone? humerus
  • -The scapula and the bones that form the roof of the cranium are: flat
  • -Sesamoid bones would most often be found: Near joints at the knee, hands, and feet
  • -Giant multinucleated cells that are   involved in osteolysis are called: OSTEOCLASTS
  • -Compact bone is typically found where: Stresses arrive from a limited range of directions.
  • -Spongy bone resembles a network of bony struts separated by spaces normally filled with Red bone marrow.
  • -The major effect that exercise has on bones is that it maintains and increases bone mass
  • -The basic functional unit of compact bone is the: OSTEON 
  • -The process that refers to the formation of bone is   OSTEOGENESIS OR OSSIFICATION
  • -When osteoblasts differentiate within a   mesenchymal or fibrous CT, the process is called: INTRAMEMBRANOUS OSSIFICATION.
  • -The organic and mineral components of bone matrix are continually being recycled and renewed through the process of REMODELING.
  • -Gouty arthritis is due to a buildup of: uric acid 
  • -name a uniqur feature of cervical vertebrae: transverse foramina 
  • -epiphyseal line indicates bone growth in lenght has: ended 
  • -the glenohumeral joint is the shoulder 
  • -the coxal joint is the: hip 
  • -the ribs articualte with the thoracis vertebrze on the demifacet and the rib facet. 
  • -name the bones of the lower extremity above the foot: femur, patella, tibia, fibula
  • -the axial skeleton include which of the following? not pectoal girdle 
  • -if blood CA++ levels are too low, PTH levels will increase. If CA++ are to high then calcitonin levels will increase 


MUSCULAR

  1. What influences the appearance and function of skeletal muscle? arrangement of the pattern of fascicles
  2. Which type of muscle works together with the agonist? Synergist
  3. Most levers in the human body are third-class levers
  4. The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is known as the sarcolemma
  5. Deep inward extensions of the sarcolemma form a tunnel-like network inside the muscle cell known as transverse tubules (T-tubules)
  6. Which of the following wraps and surrounds an individual skeletal muscle fiber? Endomysium
  7. What is the functional contractile unit of the myofibril? Sarcomere
  8. Where are receptors for acetylcholine located? motor end plate
  9. During muscle contraction, myosin crossbridges bind to active sites on actin filaments
  10. The main immediate source of ATP as muscle contractions begin comes from creatine phosphate
  11. Type I fibers lack speed
  12. The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called recruitment
  13. What type of contraction requires the greatest amount of tension? isotonic eccentric contraction
  14. Larry’s muscles weakened while he played tennis for hours on a hot summer afternoon. This inability to maintain intensity is defined as muscle fatigue
  15. During the recovery period after exercise, we breathe deeper and faster. This increased rate of respiration is known as excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
  16. When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, the H zone and I bands narrow
  17. Latrotoxin, produced by the poisonous black widow spider, increases the release of acetylcholine. How do muscle cells respond? Muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists.
  18. What do skeletal muscle contractions share in common with smooth muscle contractions? Both types of contractions result from thick and thin filaments sliding past one another.
  19. What is the basic function of all muscle tissue? generate muscle tension
  20. What characteristic is NOT descriptive of cardiac muscle tissue? voluntary muscle contractions
  21. The degree to which a muscle cell can stretch depends on its  extensibility
  22. The storage and release of calcium ions is the key function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  23. What anchors thin and elastic filaments in place within the myofibril? Z disc
  24. Myofilaments shorten to produce muscle contractions according to the sliding filament mechanism. False
  25. I band: region that contains both thick and thin filaments
  26. H zone: middle portion of the A band that contains thick filaments only
  27. Z-disc: the sarcomere is situated between two of these adjacent structures
  28. M line: region that contains only thin filaments
  29. A band: middle line of the A band
  30. The Na+/K+ pump helps a muscle cell maintain a state of: resting membrane potential
  31. What value best represents resting membrane potential of skeletal muscle cells? -85 mV
  32. Which type of contraction causes a skeletal muscle to shorten? isotonic concentric contraction
  33. Which of the following is not one of the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue? excess post-exercise oxygen consumption


  1. Electrical gradients exist because sodium and potassium ions are separated on either side of the plasma membrane True
  2. What is required for excitation-contraction coupling? calcium ions and ATP
  3. The binding of a myosin head to an actin molecule is termed a crossbridge
  4. Which statement best describes the function of myoglobin? Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle cells.
  5. Through which ATP-generating mechanism can long-lasting muscle contractions be sustained? oxidative catabolism
  6. Between the start of the latent period and the start of the contraction period, there is a time interval during which the muscle cannot respond to another stimulus. This brief period is known as the refractory period
  7. When muscle fibers are stimulated so frequently they do not have an opportunity to relax, they are experiencing fused or complete tetanus
  8. The fastest muscle contraction would be produced by a type IIb fiber
  9. A single motor neuron together with all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates is called a motor unit
  10. The type of contraction in which length of the muscle fibers do not change is called isometric
  11. Both isotonic eccentric contractions and isotonic concentric contractions shorten the muscle False
  12. In response to physical inactivity, we expect to see muscles atrophy
  13. Jack has decided to take up jogging as a way to enhance his endurance training. True
  14. Decreased oxygen availability leads to muscle fatigue True
  15. Smooth muscle and skeletal muscle both possess myosin and actin filaments
  16. Cardiac muscles perform peristalsis to pump blood through the heart. False
  17. In order to keep a resting membrane potential, the active transport of the sodium and potassium pump must function to keep: a high concentration of sodium outside the cell and a high concentration of potassium inside the cytosol.
  18. The functional unit of contraction, where muscle tension is produced, is the: sarcomere
  19. Thick filaments: are composed primarily of the protein myosin
  20. Inward extensions of the sarcolemma that dive deeply into the muscle fiber and surround each myofibril are known as: transverse tubules (T-tubules)
  21. Another name for a muscle cell is a: Myocyte
  22. Which of the following events will not occur within the sarcomeres of a contracting muscle fiber? A-bands get smaller
  23. During an action potential, the loss of potassium ions from the cell results in repolarization.
  24. The sarcoplasmcontains cytosol and all of the organelles in the muscle cell.
  25. A fascicle (or fasciculus) is a bundle of: muscle fibers.
  26. The synapse of a motor neuron with a muscle fiber is known as the neuromuscular junction.
  27. Which of the following properties is not common to all muscle cells? Defensive
  28. Actin and myosin are both found in the A-band.
  29. A fascicle (or fasciculus) is a bundle of: muscle fibers.
  30. The sarcoplasm of muscle cells contain cylindrical organelles called myofibrils, which make up 50-80% of its volume.


  1. Action potentials do not stay in one place, they are propagated throughout the entire sarcolemma like ripples in a pond.
  2. The separation of charges across the plasma membrane is called: an electrical gradient.
  3. Ion channels that open and close in response to a change in membrane potential are called: voltage-gated channels
  4. What characteristic is not descriptive of skeletal muscle tissue: Surround hollow organs
  5. Myofilaments are bundles of hundreds to thousands of the following types of proteins except: transport proteins
  6. Muscle contraction is simply a succession of crossbridge cycles and the resulting production of force.
  7. Calcium ions bind to which regulatory protein? Troponin
  8. The amount of time it takes for an action potential to spread through the sarcolemma is known as the: latent period.
  9. The order in which the three phases of muscle contraction occur is: excitation phase, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction phase.
  10. A pathway of ATP production that results in the formation of lactic acid is glycolytic catabolism
  11. The first step of the crossbridge cycle begins when: ATP hydrolysis “cocks” the myosin head
  12. Fibers with low myosin ATPase activity found in muscles that require slow sustained contractions, are known as slow-twitch fibers
  13. When a muscle fiber is relaxed, calcium ions would be: within lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  14. Muscles remain in a contracted state during rigor mortis because: ATP is required to release the attached actin and myosin molecules.
  15. When muscle fibers are stimulated at a high frequency and the tension remains constant at a maximal level the muscle fiber has transitioned into fused or complete tetanus
  16. Each connection where a single motor neuron communicates with many muscle fibers is known as a synapse
  17. Which of the following substances is released from synaptic knobs in order to initiate a skeletal muscle contraction? Acetylcholine
  18. When a myosin head binds to an actin molecule, a(n) crossbridge is formed.
  19. Muscle relaxation occurs when ACh release is stopped, the remaining ACh in the synaptic cleft is broken down, and the calcium ion concentration in the cytosol returns to its resting levels.
  20. What causes the release of myosin heads from actin filaments after the power stroke? The binding of ATP molecules to the myosin heads
  21. The fastest muscle contraction would be produced by which of the following fiber types?  Type IIx fibers
  22. The narrow space between the axon terminal and the muscle fiber is known as the: synaptic cleft.
  23. ATP is rapidly consumed when muscle contraction begins but is regenerated almost immediately by creatine phosphate
  24. Local depolarization of the motor end plate is called: an end-plate potential.
  25. The neurotransmitter used in a neuromuscular junction is: acetylcholine (ACh).
  26. Which of the following motor units would be most appropriate for the muscles controlling eye movement? Small motor unit with 2-5 muscle fibers per motor unit
  27. What do skeletal muscle contractions share in common with smooth muscle contractions? Both types of contractions result from thick and thin filaments sliding past one another.
  28. Which of the following best describes actin filaments? A thin filament made of two intertwining strands whose subunits bind together like beads on a string
  29. The type of contraction that causes a skeletal muscle to lengthen is called: isotonic eccentric contraction


  1. Which aspect of muscle relaxation requires ATP? Pumping calcium ions back into the SR
  2. The required ATP is generated by:
  3. Regulatory proteins around actin: Tropomyosin and troponin.
  4. Binding of calcium ions (Ca2+) to troponin allows crossbridge formation.
  5. Neurotransmitter controlling NMJ action: Acetylcholine (ACh).
  6. Functional unit of a muscle cell: Sarcomere.
  7. During glycolysis glucose is broken down into: pyruvic acid
  8.  Skeletal muscle has increased numbers of mitochondria due to increased demand for  ATP.
  9. Banding due to: overlap of thick & thin filaments, absorption of light and regular arrangement of actin & myosin.
  10. Which muscle protrudes the tongue, allowing you to lick an ice cream cone? Genioglossus
  11. Which of the following bones is not attached to the sternocleidomastoid muscle? Mandible
  12. Where does the mentalis muscle insert?
  13. What is the only extrinsic eye muscle to originate from the anterior orbit? Inferior oblique
  14. The masseter and temporalis muscles provide much of the force for chewing
  15. Where does the mentalis muscle insert? Skin of the chin
  16. What can you tell about a muscle whose name includes the word serratus? Its appearance is serrated or jagged
  17. What influences the appearance and function of skeletal muscles? Pattern in which fascicles are arranged
  18. Which fascicle arrangement has fascicles that attach to the tendon at an angle in such a way that the muscle resembles a feather?
  19. Which of the following muscles is not involved in the movement of the tongue to manipulate food while chewing and pushing the bolus of food into the throat?
  20. What facial muscle would you use to whistle?
  21. The prefix “myo-” means “muscle.”
  22. The prefix “peri-” means “around.”
  23. The prefix “endo-” means “within” or “inner.”
  24. The prefix “epi-” means “above,” “upon,” or “over.”
  25. The prefix “sarc-” or “sarco-” also means “flesh” in relation to muscle tissue.
  26. The connective tissue covering on the outside of a whole muscle is the epimysium.
  27. The connective tissue covering an individual muscle fiber is the endomysium.
  28. The structural and functional unit of skeletal muscle is called a/an sarcomere.
  29. The part of a muscle fiber that contracts is called a/an myofibril.
  30. The connective tissue covering around a fascicle is the perimysium.
  31. What is the basic function of all muscle tissue? generate muscle tension
  32. Titin is a spring-shaped elastic protein that attaches to the thick filament and anchors it to the Z-discs of a sarcomere. If titan was denatured, making it straight, it would no longer be able to: uncoil when stretched and recoil when the force is removed.
  33. When the sarcomere contracts and shortens, The A band contains the thick filaments, and the length of the thick filament does not change during contraction.


  1. Which of the following is descriptive of skeletal muscle fibers? Skeletal muscle fibers are striated.
  2. Which of the following membrane proteins is involved in active transport? Na+/K+ pump
  3. If the cytosol loses K+ ions through leak channels, it will become: more negative.
  4. For every ATP split into an ADP and a phosphate, the Na+/K+ pump moves _____ out of the cell and ______ into the cell. 3 Na+; 2 K+
  5. The narrow space between the axon terminal and the motor end plate is called the: synaptic cleft
  6. Stimulation of acetylcholine (ACh) receptors by ACh will primarily result in: sodium ions entering the muscle fiber
  7. The end-plate potential is: a depolarization caused by sodium ion movement into the cytosol.
  8. The neurons of patients with multiple sclerosis are unable to transmit action potentials down the axon. How will that affect skeletal muscle stimulation? The muscle will not be stimulated and therefore will not contract.
  9. The active ingredient of Botox, botulinum toxin, blocks the release of ACh from the axon terminal. An overdose of Botox will most likely result in: muscle paralysis at the site of injection.
  10. The components of a triad in muscle physiology are two terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) and one T-tubule.
  11. Excitation-contraction coupling results in an increase of calcium ion concentration in the cytosol of the muscle fiber.
  12. Predict the effect of Tetrodotoxin, a powerful blocker of voltage-gated sodium ion channels: There will be no action potential generated in the muscle fiber.
  13. In preparation for contraction, calcium ions bind to: troponin.
  14. The protein that binds to actin when tropomyosin moves off of the active sites of actin, is: myosin.
  15. A crossbridge forms when: a myosin head binds to actin.
  16. Which of the following steps of the crossbridge cycle occurs immediately before the power stroke? A crossbridge forms.
  17. As myosin heads complete the power stroke, actin filaments: slide toward the M line of the sarcomere.
  18. Which of the following causes myosin to detach from actin? An ATP molecule binds to myosin.
  19. In the absence of ATP in the muscle, which of the following is most likely to occur? Some myosin heads will remain attached to actin molecules, but are unable to perform a power stroke.
  20. Which of the following can cause relaxation? End of neural stimulation
  21. When the sarcolemma repolarizes and returns to rest: the inside of the sarcolemma is more negatively charged than the outside.
  22. The progressive stiffening of muscles after death, known as rigor mortis, is due to: ATP depletion, which leads to high cytosolic calcium and inability of crossbridges to detach.
  23. Rank from the first to the last steps in stages involved in a twitch contraction: latent period, contraction period, relaxation period
  24. The main immediate source of ATP (lasting about 10 seconds) as muscle contractions begin comes from: creatine phosphate.
  25. What is a necessary reactant for glycolytic, or anaerobic, catabolism to proceed? Glucose
  26. Inadequate calcium in the neuromuscular junction would directly affect which of the following processes? Release of acetylcholine from the synaptic vesicles
  27. What structure most directly stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber to contract? Motor unit
  28. Drag each tile to the appropriate bin to indicate whether it shows the neuromuscular junction at rest or active (in the process of transmitting a signal).
  29. If oxygen is not available, the muscle fiber will produce ATP by  anaerobic catabolism
  30. Compared to Type I fibers, Type II fibers: can generate faster, more powerful contractions