Orthopedic Conditions: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Orthopedic Conditions: Symptoms & Diagnosis
Regarding ankle and foot amputations, choose the INCORRECT answer. Lisfranc amputation is a disarticulation of the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints.
A patient with shoulder adhesive capsulitis is receiving physical therapy. Measurements of the abduction range of motion at each visit are 81 degrees, 87 degrees, 83 degrees, 86 degrees, and 88 degrees. Months
According to Cobb’s method, scoliosis can be classified as mild if it has an angle of: 14°
A 5-year-old male is brought to the office with hip pain. On examination, he exhibits Trendelenburg’s sign. Which muscle is tested with this maneuver? Gluteus medius and minimus
Which of the following options contains the CORRECT definition of kyphosis? Curvature of the spine in the sagittal plane, in which the convexity of the curve is directed posteriorly.
Take into consideration the table below and choose the option that correctly matches the fractures with their respective descriptions. 1c, 2a, 3b, 4d.
Among the different types of spine fractures, which correspond to numbers 2 and 4? Burst fracture and seat-belt fracture.
Which of the following is NOT a complication of a distal humerus fracture? Bicipital tendinitis.
Which bone is affected in Kienböck’s disease? Lunate
Flat foot is one of the most frequently reported reasons to seek orthopedic opinion in pediatrics. Choose the CORRECT answer among the options below: Asymptomatic flexible flat foot.
Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is a degenerative and inflammatory condition that not only affects tennis players, but the population in general, as it is classified as a work-related upper limb disorder. ? Increased pain on resisted wrist flexion and resisted supination.
A 16-year-old male is playing a tennis match. When diving for a ball, he develops a sudden sharp pain inside of his left knee. Lachman’s test
Which of the following contains the CORRECT statement in regard to DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis? It is characterized by thickening of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons.
Choose the CORRECT answer regarding spondylolysis: All the above is correct.
A 46-year-old factory worker presents with left shoulder pain. He has been having pain in the left shoulder for three months, without any specific injury.? Hawkins test
Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is a condition in which bone deformity in the acetabulum and/or the femur does not lead them to fit perfectly together during movement. In pincer type, there is a prominent acetabulum that does not allow the femoral head to perfectly fit in it.
Shoulder instabilities can occur in multiple directions regardless of the mechanism of injury. A traumatic shoulder dislocation can damage the connective tissue ring around the glenoid labrum.? Bankart injury; anteroinferior.
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is known as idiopathic juvenile avascular necrosis of the femoral head. This condition predominantly affects children from 2 to 14 years old, with a male:female ratio of 5:1. Weakness/atrophy of hip flexors.
A 20-year-old collegiate tennis player presents wrist pain. She notes her pain is worse with her backhand. She has been working with her coaches on improving her swing. Rest and modified activities
Osgood-Schlatter disease is also known as apophysitis of the tibial tubercle and is mainly caused by repetitive microtrauma from overuse of knee extensors. Between 11 and 14 years old.
Choose the CORRECT statement in regards to Dupuytren’s contracture. At stage 3, fingers are bent and unable to straighten.
Read the following sentences and choose the CORRECT answer regarding growing pain in children. It is characterized by lower pain threshold
A 75-year-old female presents to your office with left knee pain. She was standing on an airplane waiting to get off when she was accidentally pushed by the person next to her. Meniscal tear
Subacromial bursitis is the result of inflammation that leads to increased fluid production from the synovial cells that line the bursa.? Inflammation usually occurs by excessive friction of the infraspinatus tendon with the subacromial bursa.
Choose the CORRECT answer regarding the pronator teres syndrome: The median nerve gets entrapped between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle.
Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding knee ligament injuries: MCL and LCL injuries can be positively detected by the posterior drawer test and quadriceps active test, respectively.
Which of the options below is INCORRECT regarding ankle sprains? Deltoid ligament is the most frequently affected.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to the static stabilization of the shoulder? Subscapularis.
A 12-year-old girl presents with a two-week history of right knee pain that has worsened acutely over the past three days. ? Osgood–Schlatter disease
A 23-year-old female presents with a complaint of pain her right elbow. She is an amateur tennis player that has been working hard to make the team at the local university.? Inflammation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) tendon
Read the statements below about the definitions of three pathological conditions that affect the vertebral column and then choose the most appropriate answer. Only III is correct.
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a compression neuropathy due to entrapment of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel of the wrist. If compression persists, hypothenar muscular atrophy can be observed.
Read the statements below regarding the classifications of fractures and then choose the best option. All statements are correct.
Certain diseases show classic radiological signs that resemble fruits, objects or animals, making interpretation of images funny and didactic. The “pooping duck sign” indicates a fracture to which of the bones listed below? Triquetrum.
Which of the statements below is CORRECT regarding meniscal tears? McMurray and Appley’s tests are sensitive for meniscal tears.
Adhesive capsulitis is a painful and disabling disorder that affects the shoulder capsule, predominantly in the 50-60s population. Which of the following is a primary cause of this condition? Idiopathic.
Wry neck is a condition in which neck pain and stiffness occurs, often accompanied by spasm of the surrounding neck muscles. I, II and III are correct.
What is the best initial care for a minor ankle sprain? Cold compress
A 30-year-old male construction worker with no significant past medical history presents to the emergency room six hours after his right arm was trapped between two heavy crates.? Volkmann’s contracture
A football player stays down after a tackle and is in agonizing pain. After performing the valgus stress test, the healthcare provider is concerned that the athlete has suffered a medial collateral ligament tear with distal avulsion.? The medial surface of the tibia